Should it take 3 Democratic voters in Ohio to equal 1 Republican voter?
The Ohio GOP has decided it should and that it's fair.
That it's fair to negate the votes of 25% of Ohio Voters. (Calculations below.)
Republican leaders love to shout about "voter fraud." Yes, a vote cast by an ineligible person is a type of voter fraud. (After an intensive 5 year investigation, the Bush II administration found about 120 cases nationwide worth prosecuting. And one would assume half would vote for one party and half for the other – unless you assume that all single-vote fraudsters would vote for just one party....)
But also: denying an effective vote to an eligible person is another type of voter fraud.
Gerrymandering - the drawing of districts to favor one party over another is being taken to extremes by the GOP in Ohio.
Ohio is a swing state, sometimes going Democratic, sometime Republican. It is, in essence, split 50% Republican, 50% Democrat.
So it's 16 Congressional house memebers shoud be roughly split 50%/50%, right?
So it's 16 Congressional house memebers shoud be roughly split 50%/50%, right?
The GOP dominated legislature has redrawn district maps for the 16 Ohio Congressional districts in such a way as to almost ensure there will be a 12 Republican to 4 Democrat split in our House delegation.
In 2008, 5,607,879 people voted for president in Ohio. So let's say there are 2,803,939 Republican voters and the same number of Democrat voters. (Yes, this is an over-simplification, but we're talking averages here.)
There are 350,492 people per district. Through the extreme redistricting of the GOP, Democrats in 4 districts (the 8 expected by the averages minus the 4 lost through the extreme gerrymandering) are being denied representation.
That's 1,401,968 voters being denied an effective vote - 1.4 million cases of overt voter fraud. Brought to us by the Ohio GOP's extreme redistricting.
Thanks for this. Posting to my FB page.
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